Indian Polity MCQ Quiz Questions and Answers Quiz Questions

1. How many members can be nominated to Lok Sabha by President ?

A 0 B 2 C 3 D 4

2. Town Planning comes under which among the following parts of Constitution of India?

A Part VII B Part IX C Part IXA D None of them

3. By which Constitutional amendment, Sikkim became a new state in the Indian Union?

A 32nd, 1974 B 35th, 1975 C 36th, 1975 D 37th, 1978

4. Which amendment of the Constitution abolished the special privileges of ICS officers and empowered the Parliament to determine their service conditions?

A Twenty-eighth Amendment Act, 1972 B Twenty-fourth Amendment Act, 1971 C Twenty-ninth Amendment Act, 1972 D Twenty-sixth Amendment Act, 1971

5. Which among the following is not correctly matched? (Women Chief Ministers)

A Sucheta kriplani – Uttar Pradesh B Nandini Satpathy – Orissa C Sashikala Kakodkar – Goa D All are correct

6. When vice president acts as the president , which among the following is/ are true?

A He/ She remains the chairman of the Rajya Sabha and performs the duties of the chairman of Rajya Sabha B He/ She ceases to be the chairman of Rajya Sabha C Lok Sabha Speaker performs the duty of the chairman of the Rajya Sabha D None of the above

7. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in the four states of :

A Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland B Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram C Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland D Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland

8. Which among the following correctly differentiates the Union Legislature and Parliament of India ?

A Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, Parliament consists of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President B Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha only, Parliament Consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha C Union Legislature consists of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President, Parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha D There is no difference between the two

9. Which act extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes?

A Indian Councils Act, 1909 B Government of India Act, 1919 C Indian Independence Act, 1947 D Government of India Act, 1935

10. Which committee was formed for the determination of boundary of India and Pakistan?

A Hartog committee B Radcliffe committee C Zakir Hussain committee D Lee commission

11. What are the powers of the Governor with regards to the Money Bill?

A He can return the Money bill back to the state legislature B Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature without his prior recommendation C Both of them D None of them

12. Which Article of the Constitution of India states that the executive power of the state shall be vested in the governor?

A Article 154 B Article 155 C Article 156 D Article 157

13. Who administers oath to a judge of a high court?

A President B Chief Justice of India C Attorney General D Governor

14. In which year the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was given statutory status?

A 2001 B 2003 C 2006 D 2008

15. What is the recommended percentage of members belonging to SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities and women in the Lokpal?

A 25% B 35% C 50% D 10%

16. In which of the following year the President of India appointed an Official Language Commission under the chairmanship of B.G. Kher?

A 1950 B 1955 C 1957 D 1965

17. Which of the following languages conferred with Classical Language status?

A Only 1 & 2 B Only 1 & 3 C Only 1, 2 & 3 D 1, 2, 3 & 4

18. Which section of the Criminal Procedure Code provides for the procedure if offences is committed outside the territorial jurisdiction of our country India?

A Section 188 B Section 189 C Section 190 D Section 191

19. Which section of IPC states that any speech or written text or signs, which maliciously insults or attempts to insult and demean the religious beliefs of any class of people is punishable with imprisonment upto 4 years or fine or both?

A Section 295A B Section 295B C Section 296 D Section 297

20. The central Consumer Protection Authority will have which of the following powers?

A Only 1 B Only 2 & 3 C Only 1 & 3 D 1, 2 & 3

21. Which of the following schedules of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 provides absolute protection – offences under these are prescribed the highest penalties?

A Part II of Schedule II B Schedule III C Schedule IV D Schedule V

22. Who appoints the chairman of the Estimates Committee?

A President B Prime Minister C Speaker of Lok Sabha D Chairman of Lok Sabha

23. When was the Parliamentary Forum on Millennium Development Goals created?

A 2000 B 2010 C 2013 D 2015

24. In which year did the Supreme Court declare the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act unconstitutional and void?

A 2010 B 2013 C 2015 D 2018

25. Who can make regulations for the peace, progress good government of the Tuensang district under Article 371 A of the Constitution?

A President B Parliament C Governor D State Legislature

26. Committee to review the existing Administrative Arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes was constituted under the chairmanship of?

A Ashok Mehta B G.V.K. Rao C Balwant Rai D L M Singhvi

27. Who is considered the father of local-self government in India?

A Macaulay B Lord Ripon C Lord Mayo D None of the above

28. Which of the following statements are true for the UTs?

A Their relationship with Centre is federal B They have autonomy C Their executive head is the governor D None of the above

29. Who determines the conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners of Election Commission of India?

A Parliament B President C Prime Minister D Speaker

30. Who is authorized to remove the chief election commissioner?

A The Parliament B The Supreme Court of India C The President of India D The President on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with special majority

31. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Union Public Service Commission?

A It’s recommendations are binding in nature. B It’s recommendations are advisory in nature. C It is a non government organisation. D None of the above

32. The Minimum Wages Act was enacted in which year?

A 1948 B 1949 C 1950 D 1951

33. Which of the following are the duties of Child Marriage Prohibition Officer?

A Only 1 & 2 B Only 2 & 3 C Only 2, 3 & 4 D 1, 2, 3 & 4

34. In which year the Supreme Court adopted the Collegium System for the appointment of Judges of Supreme Court of India?

A 1993 B 1997 C 2001 D 2005

35. Who has the power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects?

A The President B The Parliament C The Prime Minister D The Vice President

36. Who can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions?

A The Parliament B The Council of Ministers C The Prime Minister D The Vice President

37. Who is empowered to declare National Emergency under Article 352?

A The Parliament B The Prime Minister C The Council of Ministers D The President

38. Which amendment authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more states or for two or more states and a union territory?

A 5th B 6th C 7th D 8th

39. Fourth Schedule of Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?

A Panchayat Raj System B Schedule Tribes C Allocation of seats for the Council of States D Anti-defection Law

40. How many states and Union Territories were created after the recommendations of States Reorganization Commission formed in 1953?

A 16 States and 3 Uts B 14 States and 6 Uts C 15 States and 5 Uts D 14 States and 5 Uts

41. Which of the following countries does not have a policy of Dual Citizenship?

A Canada B Australia C Pakistan D Nepal

42. National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under which act of Parliament?

A Legal Services Authorities Act, 1958 B Legal Services Authorities Act, 1967 C Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 D Legal Services Authorities Act, 1990

43. The Articles associated with the Fundamental Rights in Indian Constitution are?

A Article 11 to 34 B Article 12 to 35 C Article 12 to 36 D Article 11 to 25

44. How much majority is required to amend federal provisions in the Constitution of India?

A Simple majority of each house of Parliament B Special majority of each house of Parliament C One-fourth majority of each house of Parliament D Special majority of each house of Parliament plus ratification by half of the states with simple majority

45. From which date the President of India holds office for a term of five years?

A The date on which he enters upon his office B The date on which he/she is elected C The date decided by Parliament D The date decided by Election Commission

46. How many days of prior notice is required for the impeachment of the President of India?

A 7 days B 14 days C 25 days D 30 days

47. Which of the following is correct with respect to the electoral college of Vice-President?

A Only 1 B Only 2 C Both 1 & 2 D Neither 1 & 2

48. What can a President do when a money bill is presented to him?

A Only 1 B Only 2 & 3 C Only 1, 2 & 3 D All of the above

49. Which amendment empowered the president to send back once, the advice of cabinet for reconsideration?

A 42nd B 44th C 46th D 48th